(1 + sinA)(1 – sinA)(1 + tan²A) is equal to:
-
A.
cosA
-
B.
0
-
C.
1
-
D.
tanA
Correct Answer:
C. 1
Explanation:
The relationship follows a pattern where each letter in the first word is shifted backward by 4 positions in the English alphabet to find the corresponding letter in the second word. Applying this logic: - S - 4 = O
- K - 4 = G
- I - 4 = E
- B - 4 = X (Note: The first example SKIB to OGNG contains a slight deviation or typo in the prompt's logic, but the second example CUCV to YQHA confirms the -4 shift: C-4=Y, U-4=Q, C-4=Y, V-4=R. Wait, C-4 is Y, U-4 is Q, C-4 is Y, V-4 is R. Let's re-examine).Applying the -4 shift to QIRK: - Q - 4 = M
- I - 4 = E
- R - 4 = N (Wait, R-4 is N, but the options are MWEP, MWPE, MEPW, MEWP).Re-evaluating the pattern:
S(19) to O(15) is -4
K(11) to G(7) is -4
I(9) to N(14) is +5
B(2) to G(7) is +5
C(3) to Y(25) is -4
U(21) to Q(17) is -4
C(3) to H(8) is +5
V(22) to A(1) is +5
Following this -4, -4, +5, +5 logic for QIRK:
Q(17) - 4 = M
I(9) - 4 = E
R(18) + 5 = W
K(11) + 5 = P
The result is MEWP.
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